dc655321
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Top : linear phase parametric bass boost. Group delay = 0. Some pre-ringing is visible.
How does one get zero group delay from a linear phase filter?
Top : linear phase parametric bass boost. Group delay = 0. Some pre-ringing is visible.
How does one get zero group delay from a linear phase filter?
By setting the time reference on the peak of the impulse response.
Call it constant rather than zero if you prefer. Same result, but zero is easier to work with.But it's not zero group delay - it is simply time shifted.
Maybe it's a small semantic thing, but it feels misleading to characterize the effect you've demonstrated as "zero group delay".
Call it constant rather than zero if you prefer. Same result, but zero is easier to work with.
You're never going to get perfect results once speakers and rooms get involved.That is not what he meant. I think there is a confusion here.
Here is impulse response with start adjusted to 0:
You're never going to get perfect results once speakers and rooms get involved.
A better example is preringing. It is called "pre" ringing because it occurs before the reference time (although it occurs after the original signal is fed into the filter).
Now I'm confused.That's for sure. I was merely trying to clear the cconfusion here, not to claim otherwise.
A waterfall makes a continuous sound and I don’t think group delay can be used to describe a sound generating source (not a transducer) anyways. But to entertain the idea, an impulsive sound like a gunshot in an anechoic chamber might be better. I would expect a flat group delay if you were to treat a recording of the sound as an impulse response and analyze it.what would a natural group delay, let's say of a waterfall, look like? all 0, or rising at bass?
A waterfall makes a continuous sound and I don’t think group delay can be used to describe a sound generating source (not a transducer) anyways. But to entertain the idea, an impulsive sound like a gunshot in an anechoic chamber might be better. I would expect a flat group delay if you were to treat a recording of the sound as an impulse response and analyze it.
A waterfall makes a continuous sound and I don’t think group delay can be used to describe a sound generating source (not a transducer) anyways. But to entertain the idea, an impulsive sound like a gunshot in an anechoic chamber might be better. I would expect a flat group delay if you were to treat a recording of the sound as an impulse response and analyze it.
With a perfectly symmetrical impulse response, that is exactly what it does.
Perfect would be both zero minimum and excess group delay. The minimum group delay is caused by the FR as you’ve alluded to, which is a possible reason one would want to extend FR as low as possible (even if the max SPL achievable is not that high at these low frequencies). And the excess is from other sources. But excess is not correctable without preringing.so, a perfect group delay for our speakers in our room would be 0 excess group delay? since a flat group delay seams to be only possible with totaly flat frequencie response
Now I'm even more confused.As I explained in my previous post, phase and group delay are measured as speaker output relative to the input signal (usually sine sweep over the freq range). Only ideal speaker would output perfectly symmetrical IR with phase and GD being 0, but something like that doesn't exist in a real world. @Pio2001 certainly wasn't speaking about phase and GD of "ideal" speaker.
you can to a certain point if you have a subwooferBut excess is not correctable without preringing.
Well yes, if you high pass the speaker where its excess group delay is high and have a subwoofer with a lower excess group delay that would help. This mainly helps lower minimum group delay due to the frequency response extension though. It’s worth mentioning the crossover between the subwoofer and speakers itself also adds excess group delay.you can to a certain point if you have a subwoofer