Concerning wines, it is not totally correct that there is zero correlation between quality and price, or that expensive wines cannot be differentiated from cheaper wines. I looked into the research on this some time ago, spurred by the fact that blind-testing of wines sometimes became a part of some hifi discussions. I found that some of the media coverage on this was somewhat incorrect.
In short: Individual cases of ratings of wine are heavily influenced by things like color, reputation, prices, etc. Nevertheless, there does seem to be a modest correlation between wine prices and quality ratings in blind tests. Which means that there are objective quality differences between wines after all. This article sums up much of the evidence:
https://academic.oup.com/ajae/article-abstract/97/1/103/273750
I found this article interesting too:
https://www.cambridge.org/core/jour...d-replicates/BBF3DCCD599F587F4E7AE19F72EAE412
Even though individual wine judges are far from having a perfect replicability score, there is nevertheless a higher probability that they will rate a "good" wine as better than a "bad" wine. Which means that a 0-result in an individual blind test between two wines doesn't invalidate that one of the wines may in fact be better, and that it's somewhat more probable that wine drinkers will prefer that one over the other.
For me, this seems roughly on a par with where I think things stand in audio. I trust measurements and objective data over sighted listening, and even though I like DBTs, I don't think individual negative results in a blind test is the final word (if there are in fact substantive objective differences that can be measured).